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NEW QUESTION 1
Which two statements about application-layer test commands ate true? (Choose two.)
A. Some of them display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process.
B. Some of them display real-time application debugs.
C. Some of them display only output, after you run the diagnose debug console enable command.
D. Some of them can be used to restart an application.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
– Statistics and Configuration Information: Application-layer test commands can display detailed statistics and configuration information about specific features or processes. For example, commands like diagnose vpn ipsec tunnel list provide detailed statistics about VPN tunnels.
– Real-time Debugs: These commands also facilitate real-time debugging of applications and processes. For instance, using diagnose debug application followed by the specific application, such as fssod, provides real-time debug information which is crucial for troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION 2
Which exchange lakes care of DoS protection in IKEv2?
A. IKE_Req_INIT
B. IKE_SA_INIT
C. IKE_Auth
D. Create_CHILD_SA
Answer: B
Explanation:
– IKE_SA_INIT Exchange: The IKE_SA_INIT exchange is the first step in the IKEv2 negotiation process. It is responsible for setting up the initial security association (SA) and performing Diffie-Hellman key exchange. During this exchange, the responder may employ various measures to protect against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks, such as rate limiting and the use of puzzles to increase the computational cost for an attacker.
– DoS Protection Mechanisms: One key method involves limiting the number of half-open SAs from any single IP address or subnet. The IKE_SA_INIT exchange can also incorporate the use of stateless cookies, which help to verify the initiator’s legitimacy without requiring extensive resource allocation by the responder until the initiator is verified.
NEW QUESTION 3
There are four exchanges during IKEv2 negotiation. Which sequence is correct?
A. IKE_Proposal, ID_Auth, PiggyBack_CHILD and Informational.
B. lnit_Req, Wait_lnit_Req, ID_Auth_Req and Create_CHILD_SA.
C. INIT_Re, INIT_Auth, ID_Child and SET_Nonce.
D. IKE_SAJNIT, IKE_Auth, Create_CHILD_SA and Informational.
Answer: D
Explanation:
– IKE_SA_INIT: This is the first exchange in IKEv2. It establishes a secure, authenticated channel between peers and negotiates cryptographic algorithms and keys.
– IKE_Auth: The second exchange authenticates the IKE SA (Security Association) using the previously negotiated keys and algorithms. This exchange also establishes the first IPsec SA.
– Create_CHILD_SA: This exchange creates additional IPsec SAs after the initial authentication. It can also be used to rekey existing IPsec SAs to maintain security.
– Informational: This is a generic exchange used for various purposes such as error notification, deletion of SAs, and other control messages.
NEW QUESTION 4
What are two functions of automation stitches? (Choose two.)
A. You can configure automation stitches on any FortiGate device in a Security Fabric environment.
B. You can create automation stitches to run diagnostic commands and attach the results to an email message when CPU or memory usage exceeds specified thresholds.
C. An automation stitch configured to execute actions sequentially can take parameters from previous actions as input for the current action.
D. You can set an automation stitch configured to execute actions in parallel to insert a specific delay between actions.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
– Automation Stitches Overview: Automation stitches in FortiOS allow administrators to automate responses to specific events, such as running diagnostic commands or taking corrective actions when certain thresholds are exceeded.
– Diagnostic Commands and Alerts: Automation stitches can be configured to run diagnostic commands and attach the results to email alerts. This is useful for monitoring and troubleshooting purposes, particularly when CPU or memory usage exceeds set thresholds.
– Sequential Execution with Parameters: When actions are executed sequentially, each action can take parameters from the previous action as input. This enables more complex workflows and automation sequences where the output of one action influences the next.
NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following regarding protocol states is true?
A. proto_state=00 indicates that UDP traffic flows in both directions.
B. proto_state=01 indicates an established TCP session.
C. proto_state=10 indicates an established TCP session.
D. proto_state=01 indicates one-way ICMP traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation:
proto_state=00: Indicates no traffic or a closed session.
proto_state=01: Typically indicates one-way ICMP traffic or a partially established TCP session.
proto_state=10: Indicates an established TCP session, where the session has completed the three-way handshake and both sides can send and receive data.
proto_state=11: Often indicates a fully established and active bidirectional session.
NEW QUESTION 6
Which statement is correct regarding LDAP authentication using the regular bind type?
A. The regular bind type goes through four steps to successfully authenticate a user.
B. The regular bind type cannot be used if users are authenticated using sAMAccountName.
C. The regular bind type is the easiest bind type to configure on FortiOS.
D. The regular bind type requires a FortiGate super_admin account.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The regular bind type for LDAP authentication involves multiple steps to verify user credentials:
Step 1: The client sends a bind request with the username to the LDAP server.
Step 2: The LDAP server responds to the bind request.
Step 3: The client sends a bind request with the password.
Step 4: The LDAP server responds, confirming or denying the authentication.
NEW QUESTION 7
Which two conditions would prevent a static route from being added to the routing table? (Choose two.)
A. The next-hop IP address is unreachable.
B. The interface specified in the route configuration is down.
C. The route has a lower priority value than another route to the same destination.
D. There is another other route to the same destination, with a lower distance.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
– Next-hop IP address: For a static route to be added to the routing table, the next-hop IP address must be reachable. If it is not reachable, the route cannot be considered valid and will not be added.
– Interface status: If the interface specified in the static route configuration is down, the route will not be added to the routing table. The interface must be up and operational for the route to be valid.
– Priority and Distance: While priority and administrative distance affect route selection, they do not prevent a route from being added to the routing table. Instead, they influence which route is preferred when multiple routes to the same destination exist.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which three conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF link costs match.
B. OSPF interface priority settings are unique.
C. OSPF interface network types match.
D. Authentication settings match.
E. OSPF router IDs are unique.
Answer: CDE
Explanation:
– OSPF Interface Network Types: The network types of the interfaces on both FortiGate devices must match. Common network types include broadcast, point-to-point, and non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA).
– Authentication Settings: Both devices must have matching authentication settings (if authentication is used). This includes the same authentication type (none, simple password, or MD5) and the same password or key.
– OSPF Router IDs: Each OSPF router must have a unique router ID within the OSPF domain. The router ID is typically an IPv4 address selected from one of the router’s interfaces or manually configured.
– Link Costs and Interface Priority: While link costs and interface priorities are important for route selection and designated router (DR) elections, they do not prevent OSPF adjacency formation if they differ.
NEW QUESTION 9
Which two statements about conserve mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. FortiGate starts dropping all new sessions when the system memory reaches the configured red threshold.
B. FortiGate starts taking the configured action for new sessions requiring content inspection when the system memory reaches the configured red threshold.
C. FortiGate enters conserve mode when the system memory reaches the configured extreme threshold.
D. FortiGate exits conserve mode when the system memory goes below the configured green threshold.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
– Conserve Mode Activation: FortiGate enters conserve mode to prevent system crashes when the memory usage reaches critical levels. The “red threshold” is the point at which FortiGate starts dropping new sessions to conserve memory. When the system memory usage exceeds this threshold, the FortiGate will block new sessions that require significant memory resources, such as those needing content inspection.
– Exiting Conserve Mode: The “green threshold” is the memory usage level below which FortiGate exits conserve mode and resumes normal operation. Once the system memory usage drops below this threshold, FortiGate will start allowing new sessions again.
NEW QUESTION 10
Which statement about IKE and IKE NAT-T is true?
A. IKE is used to encapsulate ESP traffic in some situations, and IKE NAT-T is used only when the local FortiGate is using NAT on the IPsec interface.
B. IKE is the standard implementation for IKEv1 and IKE NAT-T is an extension added in IKEv2.
C. They each use their own IP protocol number.
D. They both use UDP as their transport protocol and the port number is configurable.
Answer: D
Explanation:
– IKE (Internet Key Exchange): IKE is a protocol used to set up a security association (SA) in the IPsec protocol suite. It is utilized to negotiate, create, and manage SAs.
– NAT-T (Network Address Translation-Traversal): NAT-T is used to enable IPsec VPN traffic to pass through NAT devices. It encapsulates IPsec ESP packets into UDP packets.
– Transport Protocol: Both IKE and IKE NAT-T use UDP as their transport protocol.
– Port Numbers: By default, IKE uses UDP port 500. NAT-T typically uses UDP port 4500. However, these port numbers can be configured as needed.
NEW QUESTION 11
What is the diagnose test application ipsmonitor 5 command used for?
A. To disable the IPS engine.
B. To provide information regarding IPS sessions.
C. To restart all IPS engines and monitors.
D. To enable IPS bypass mode.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The command diagnose test application ipsmonitor 5 is used to restart all IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) engines and monitors on the FortiGate device. This command is part of the diagnostic tools available for troubleshooting and maintaining the IPS functionality on the FortiGate. Running this command forces the IPS system to reset and reinitialize, which can be useful in situations where the IPS functionality appears to be malfunctioning or not responding correctly. This action helps in clearing any issues that might have arisen due to internal errors or misconfigurations, ensuring that the IPS engines operate correctly after the restart.
NEW QUESTION 12
Which three common FortiGate-to-collector-agent connectivity issues can you identify using the FSSO real-time debug? (Choose three.)
A. Refused connection. Potential mismatch of TCP port.
B. Mismatched pre-shared password.
C. Inability to reach IP address of the collector agent.
D. Log is full on the collector agent.
E. Incompatible collector agent software version.
Answer: ABC
Explanation:
– Refused Connection: A refused connection typically indicates a mismatch in the TCP port configuration between the FortiGate and the collector agent. Ensuring both are configured to use the same TCP port is crucial for proper connectivity.
– Mismatched Pre-Shared Password: If the pre-shared password configured on the FortiGate does not match the one set on the collector agent, authentication will fail, leading to connectivity issues.
– Inability to Reach IP Address: This can occur due to network issues such as incorrect routing, firewall rules blocking traffic, or the collector agent being down. Verifying network connectivity and the status of the collector agent is necessary to resolve this issue.
NEW QUESTION 13
Consider the scenario where the server name indication (SNI) does not match either the common name (CN) or any of the subject alternative names (SAN) in the server certificate. Which action will FortiGate take when using the default settings for SSL certificate inspection?
A. FortiGate closes the connection because this represents an invalid SSL/TLS configuration.
B. FortiGate uses the 31 information from the Subject field in the server certificate.
C. FortiGate uses the first entry listed in the SAN field in the server certificate.
D. FortiGate uses the SNI from the user’s web browser.
Answer: A
Explanation:
– SNI and Certificate Mismatch: When the Server Name Indication (SNI) does not match either the Common Name (CN) or any of the Subject Alternative Names (SAN) in the server certificate, FortiGate’s default behavior is to consider this as an invalid SSL/TLS configuration.
– Default Action: FortiGate, under default settings for SSL certificate inspection, will close the connection to prevent potential security risks associated with mismatched certificates.
NEW QUESTION 14
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